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Ox
05-26-2010, 08:06 PM
It is not unusual for me to receive PMs requesting legal advice or analysis. Usually these are simple issues along the lines of, “I murdered a hooker, what should I do?” These are straightforward discussions and best dealt with in private and for a hefty price.

Today, however, I received one that might be worth a little more public discussion. My correspondent (whom I will not identify without permission) asks:

Did you read the Comstock decision? Do you have an opinion on 1) the scotus decision in particular and 2) your feelings on the law in question?

I'm trying VERY hard not to believe that civil detention of individuals who were competent enough to stand trial and serve their sentence, for crimes they have not yet committed but MIGHT commit, is the beginning of the end. I feel like I'm losing that fight because the more I think about this, the angrier I get. Help talk me down, please! :)

(Yes, I know that the decision was only dealing with whether the law itself attached to an enumerated power of congress, but I'm having such a hard time understanding how the law on its face can stand up against any number of challenges, ie habeas, due process, cruel & unusual punishment, etc)

Paranoid in Punxsutawney


Dear Paranoid,

I did read the Supreme Court’s decision in United States v. Comstock (”http://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/09pdf/08-1224.pdf”) with great interest. In Comstock, the Supreme Court held that the federal government could hold convicted sex offenders in “civil commitment” (i.e., involuntary incarceration that is separate from criminal imprisonment) indefinitely. However, as you note, that case did not address the concerns you have, like due process, habeas corpus, and cruel & unusual punishment. If this is the end, we are not at the beginning; this is more like the elevenses of the end. To address your concerns, we should get into the Wayback machine and look at how involuntary indefinite civil commitment without conviction of a crime got started.

Let’s go back to 1905. The Edwardian Era is in full swing, men wear boaters and seersucker without irony, and Justice John Marshall Harlan is the lion of the nascent civil-rights movement after his lone dissents in the Civil Rights Cases and Plessy v. Ferguson. Then Justice Harlan is assigned to write the majority opinion in Jacobson v. Massachusetts (”http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=US&vol=197&invol=11”). In that case, Massachusetts had a law that permitted local boards of health to mandate vaccination in areas with disease outbreaks, with fines and imprisonment for people who willfully defied the board of health’s orders. Cambridge had a smallpox outbreak, but Jacobson refused to be vaccinated because he was convinced vaccines caused health problems and were ineffective at combating smallpox. (Smallpox is now extinct, thanks to those supposedly ineffective vaccines.) Jacobson was tried and convicted of the crime of refusing to be vaccinated when ordered. Jacobson then claimed it was a violation of his rights to be ordered to be vaccinated.

Harlan rejected this argument in a seemingly innocuous paragraph. To wit:
But the liberty secured by the Constitution of the United States to every person within its jurisdiction does not import an absolute right in each person to be, at all times and in all circumstances, wholly freed from restraint. There are manifold restraints to which every person is necessarily subject for the common good. On any other basis organized society could not exist with safety to its members. Society based on the rule that each one is a law unto himself would soon be confronted with disorder and anarchy. Real liberty for all could not exist under the operation of a principle which recognizes the right of each individual person to use his own, whether in respect of his person or his property, regardless of the injury that may be done to others… An American citizen arriving at an American port on a vessel in which, during the voyage, there had been cases of yellow fever or Asiatic cholera, he, although apparently free from disease himself, may yet, in some circumstances, be held in quarantine against his will on board of such vessel or in a quarantine station, until it be ascertained by inspection, conducted with due diligence, that the danger of the spread of the disease among the community at large has disappeared.

You see the trouble with this: what Harlan says is probably true, but he offers no limiting principle. “We are only restricting your liberty to protect society” is a sentence that could be uttered by almost any regime to justify almost any action. Does the Constitution offer any limits on restricting liberty at all, if it’s done for public safety?

Now fast forward to 1979, tossing aside your seersucker for wide ties and put four on the floor. Jive to the beat of Addington v. Texas (http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=US&vol=441&invol=418) (for this analysis, you should be dancing, yeah). Addington was a mentally ill man who had been in and out of mental hospitals and jail for several years. Eventually his mother sought to have him committed to a mental institution “indefinitely.” Texas law permitted commitment upon a showing to the preponderance of the evidence; however, the jury was told that a patient could be involuntarily committed upon a showing by “clear, unequivocal, and convincing evidence” that he is a danger to others. Addington argued that this was equivalent to a sentence of life imprisonment without the possibility of parole, and if he was going to be imprisoned for life, he should have to be convicted of a crime (or at least of being “dangerous”) beyond a reasonable doubt. The Court, in an analysis that was notably lacking in anything resembling citations to authority, declared that preponderance of the evidence was too lenient a standard. However, it also rejected the notion that involuntary civil commitment resembles criminal incarceration:
There are significant reasons why different standards of proof are called for in civil commitment proceedings as opposed to criminal prosecutions. In a civil commitment state power is not exercised in a punitive sense. Unlike [juvenile] delinquency proceeding[s], a civil commitment proceeding can in no sense be equated to a criminal prosecution.
Translation: this is TOTALLY DIFFERENT from criminal cases, because one is intended to be punitive and the other only seems to be punitive.
In addition, the "beyond a reasonable doubt" standard historically has been reserved for criminal cases. This unique standard of proof, not prescribed or defined in the Constitution, is regarded as a critical part of the "moral force of the criminal law," In re Winship, 397 U.S., at 364 , and we should hesitate to apply it too broadly or casually in noncriminal cases. Cf. ibid.
That is a legitimate point. On the other hand, that In re Winship case you guys cited? The one decided in 1970, just a few years earlier? Allow me to quote from that: “The requirement that guilt of a criminal charge be established by proof beyond a reasonable doubt dates at least from our early years as a Nation.”
It may be true that an erroneous commitment is sometimes as undesirable as an erroneous conviction. However, even though an erroneous confinement should be avoided in the first instance, the layers of professional review and observation of the patient's condition, and the concern of family and friends generally will provide continuous opportunities for an erroneous commitment to be corrected. Moreover, it is not true that the release of a genuinely mentally ill person is no worse for the individual than the failure to convict the guilty. One who is suffering from a debilitating mental illness and in need of treatment is neither wholly at liberty nor free of stigma. It cannot be said, therefore, that it is much better for a mentally ill person to "go free" than for a mentally normal person to be committed.
Translation: letting sick people go free is bad for them, so really, involuntary commitment is in their own best interests. This is a good example of a conflict between liberty and paternalism.
Finally, the initial inquiry in a civil commitment proceeding is very different from the central issue in either a delinquency proceeding or a criminal prosecution. In the latter cases the basic issue is a straightforward factual question - did the accused commit the act alleged? There may be factual issues to resolve in a commitment proceeding, but the factual aspects represent only the beginning of the inquiry. Whether the individual is mentally ill and dangerous to either himself or others and is in need of confined therapy turns on the meaning of the facts which must be interpreted by expert psychiatrists and psychologists. Given the lack of certainty and the fallibility of psychiatric diagnosis, there is a serious question as to whether a state could ever prove beyond a reasonable doubt that an individual is both mentally ill and likely to be dangerous.
We’re not going to impose a higher burden of proof because it would be too hard.

So that’s Addington. The Court settled on “clear and convincing evidence” as the burden of proof of dangerousness. But Addington is at least partially concerned with the paternalistic “we have to treat the mentally ill, even if they don’t want to” issue. It didn’t require the state to prove the person was mentally incompetent, but there’s some glimmer of hope for civil libertarians.

Here to crush all glimmers of hope is 1997. Biggie and Lady Diana are killed, Tony Blair takes office, and Kansas v. Hendricks (”http://www.law.cornell.edu/supct/html/95-1649.ZO.html”) is decided. Hendricks was a repeated child molester who was scheduled to be released from prison. In response, Kansas passed the Sexually Violent Predator Act and immediately slammed Hendricks with civil confinement. Hendricks appealed, arguing inter alia that the Act violated his substantive due process, ex post facto, and double jeopardy rights. He also claimed that Kansas had no intention of attempting to treat his pedophilia and the confinement would be punitive, necessitating a criminal conviction.

Again, the Court pissed in civil libertarians’ cornflakes. It noted that, since at least 1788, states have had authority to forcibly detain the mentally ill. It also held that a finding of dangerousness combined with a finding of “mental abnormality” was sufficient to confine a person non-punitively for an indefinite period. It also disagreed that the Act created an effectively criminal or punitive sanction. The reasons for why the Court held this commitment was not subject to criminal procedure rules were:
1. “Here, Kansas' objective to create a civil proceeding is evidenced by its placement of the Sexually Violent Predator Act within the Kansas probate code, instead of the criminal code, as well as its description of the Act as creating a "civil commitment procedure."”

2. “The Act's purpose is not retributive because it does not affix culpability for prior criminal conduct. Instead, such conduct is used solely for evidentiary purposes, either to demonstrate that a "mental abnormality" exists or to support a finding of future dangerousness.”

3. “In addition, the Kansas Act does not make a criminal conviction a prerequisite for commitment--persons absolved of criminal responsibility may nonetheless be subject to confinement under the Act.”

4. “Moreover, unlike a criminal statute, no finding of scienter [mental status, like intent, knowledge, or recklessness – Ox] is required to commit an individual who is found to be a sexually violent predator; instead, the commitment determination is made based on a "mental abnormality" or "personality disorder" rather than on one's criminal intent.””

5. “Nor can it be said that the legislature intended the Act to function as a deterrent. Those persons committed under the Act are, by definition, suffering from a "mental abnormality" or a "personality disorder" that prevents them from exercising adequate control over their behavior. Such persons are therefore unlikely to be deterred by the threat of confinement.”

6. “While we have upheld state civil commitment statutes that aim both to incapacitate and to treat, we have never held that the Constitution prevents a State from civilly detaining those for whom no treatment is available, but who nevertheless pose a danger to others. A State could hardly be seen as furthering a "punitive" purpose by involuntarily confining persons afflicted with an untreatable, highly contagious disease.”

So, Paranoid, where does this leave us?

Well, first, it’s a mistake to compare the mental illness needed for involuntary commitment with the mental state needed to be competent to stand trial. One can stand trial so long as one is capable of understanding the proceedings and the purposes of punishment, as well as being able to assist in one’s own defense. Commitment concerns one’s ability to conform one’s actions to the dictates of law. They aren’t really related.

Second, it’s a mistake to analyze this issue from the perspective of preventing crime. At least in theory (highly, highly lawyerly theory), these laws aren’t concerned with preventing crime. They don’t view pedophilia as a tendency to commit crimes, but rather as an illness with the possibility of hurting others like smallpox does. Even the legally insane (who by definition cannot commit crimes) can be committed, because that mental disease is analogized to contagious bacterial and viral diseases.

Third, it makes no sense to cite Comstock as being the problem. If you have a problem with involuntary civil commitment, take it up with Justice Harlan. Or possibly the 1788 New York Legislature.

Fourth, I’m not exactly blasé about involuntary civil commitment myself. It is in practice far more potent than criminal sanction (indefinite restraint, more social stigma) while garnering far less in the way of procedural protection. But it doesn’t seem as if the Founding generation had much of a problem with it. To be fair, that might partially be explained by the fact that modern criminal procedure law is a heck of a lot younger than involuntary commitment is. But while it’s tough to draw a line between criminal and civil confinement, I’m also reluctant to argue that involuntary quarantine of people suspected of carrying contagious disease is unconstitutional. All in all, this is why I prefer the approach of originalist and textualist constitutional thought: I don’t want to have to draw these lines in a free-floating undergraduate bull session.

TheFlyingOrc
05-26-2010, 08:49 PM
Your posts are so much better now that I imagine I am being instructed by Harvey Birdman.

Vigil80
05-26-2010, 09:17 PM
Whew. I'll have to print that out and read it over the next several days. ;)

Also, cute tags.

TheManEatingCow
05-26-2010, 11:09 PM
First, thanks for the time spent on doing this research. Kudos on the 'not getting paid for this' tag.

Second, thanks for offering to shield my identity, but its not necessary. I have no problems being known as "the paranoid dude who doesn't trust the gubment".


So, Paranoid, where does this leave us?

Well, first, it’s a mistake to compare the mental illness needed for involuntary commitment with the mental state needed to be competent to stand trial. One can stand trial so long as one is capable of understanding the proceedings and the purposes of punishment, as well as being able to assist in one’s own defense. Commitment concerns one’s ability to conform one’s actions to the dictates of law. They aren’t really related.

Fair enough. Though what this does tell me is that the criminal justice system relies on either the entire DSM list of mental abnormalities or some subset of it. I assume that what is considered a valid abnormality differs from state to state, but do the Feds have a fixed list somewhere of what they are willing to accept as an abnormality? I will come back around to this point in a minute.


Second, it’s a mistake to analyze this issue from the perspective of preventing crime. At least in theory (highly, highly lawyerly theory), these laws aren’t concerned with preventing crime. They don’t view pedophilia as a tendency to commit crimes, but rather as an illness with the possibility of hurting others like smallpox does. Even the legally insane (who by definition cannot commit crimes) can be committed, because that mental disease is analogized to contagious bacterial and viral diseases.


Before I start, I want to point out that by and large, I do not like the slippery slope argument. Lines in the sand can be drawn and held to just as easily as they can be moved. That said, I'm about to toss that out the window and use one now.

In your previous explanation you said re: the Hendricks case that

It also held that a finding of dangerousness combined with a finding of “mental abnormality” was sufficient to confine a person non-punitively for an indefinite period.

Given that there appears to be a dependency on the American Psychiatric Associations DSM, and that all that's needed is one of these "abnormalities" to be present along with a finding of dangerousness, what is stopping the state from saying that a serial burgler who is diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder needs to be civilly confined? Someone who continues to steal poses a threat to society through his/her repeated stealing. It seems to me that the above logic holds for this criminal the same way it holds for the pedophile. I understand that pederasts/rapists aren't exactly a sympathetic group of people and that it would appear I'm hitching my wagon to their cause since the law in question affects only sex offenders, but we live in a state that is supposed to honor the rights of all of its citizenry, even those who do distasteful things.


Third, it makes no sense to cite Comstock as being the problem. If you have a problem with involuntary civil commitment, take it up with Justice Harlan. Or possibly the 1788 New York Legislature.



I probably should have been a bit clearer in my initial message. I had 2 different problems that were elicited by the same decision. The first was my distaste in general for indefinite civil detention. I do understand that Comstock was not addressing this directly. My other problem was the expansion of federal power through the Comstock decision. I was interested in your thoughts on what was decided, more precisely, do you agree with the majority's ultimate decision that:

we must reject respondents’ argument that the Necessary and Proper Clause permits no more than a single step between an enumerated power and an Act of Congress.


and whether it should be left to the states to enact this kind of law.

If you want to get into your views on the Commerce Clause, I'm all ears as well, though that is probably a post deserving a separate thread altogether. ;)



Fourth, I’m not exactly blasé about involuntary civil commitment myself. It is in practice far more potent than criminal sanction (indefinite restraint, more social stigma) while garnering far less in the way of procedural protection. But it doesn’t seem as if the Founding generation had much of a problem with it. To be fair, that might partially be explained by the fact that modern criminal procedure law is a heck of a lot younger than involuntary commitment is. But while it’s tough to draw a line between criminal and civil confinement, I’m also reluctant to argue that involuntary quarantine of people suspected of carrying contagious disease is unconstitutional. All in all, this is why I prefer the approach of originalist and textualist constitutional thought: I don’t want to have to draw these lines in a free-floating undergraduate bull session.


While I may not be able to adequately articulate it, I really believe there is a difference between the quarantining of an individual that is infected with a proven contagious disease and a criminal who has been convicted of a crime and has served his/her time in prison being held because of the danger they might pose to society if released. I know you say that it's a mistake to view it in this manner, but the end result is the same. The state is holding the individual because it believes that that individual will commit a harm to society in the future. In the case of the quarantine, the presence of the disease IS the harm.

I'm not a complete nutter who thinks that the next step is some Minority Report version of the future (just thinking about all the running that happens in that future is tiring me out), but I am genuinely concerned about a step toward a government and an easy/seductive line of thinking regarding the safety of the citizenry that is a lot closer to tyranny than I am comfortable with.

Ox
05-26-2010, 11:32 PM
I assume that what is considered a valid abnormality differs from state to state, but do the Feds have a fixed list somewhere of what they are willing to accept as an abnormality?
I suspect most states rely on the DSM-IV or a subset of that. While there may be federal restrictions in the form of limitations on expert testimony (i.e. the Frye test for scientific validity), I don't believe the federal courts have outlined a specified list of mental defects which would justify commitment. Hendricks seems to suggest that the courts are reluctant to tell the legislature that it has to confine itself to strictly psychiatric terminology and criteria because the criteria for commitment ought at least in part to be a legislative judgment, not a medical one.

Given that there appears to be a dependency on the American Psychiatric Associations DSM, and that all that's needed is one of these "abnormalities" to be present along with a finding of dangerousness, what is stopping the state from saying that a serial burgler who is diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder needs to be civilly confined?
Constitutionally? Right now, not a lot. It would be an expansion of the current doctrine, but not an absurd one. More generally, however, not all restraints on government are imposed by courts. I don't know of any legislature which has created a civil commitment law which permits commitment of burglars on the basis of antisocial personality disorder, and I suspect if a legislature tried that the voters would have some choice words for them. I think lawyers and judges tend to suffer from the "holding a hammer" problem: they are able to litigate, and so they assume all issues in society must be solved through litigation.

My other problem was the expansion of federal power through the Comstock decision. I was interested in your thoughts on what was decided, more precisely, do you agree with the majority's ultimate decision
Not exactly. I'm probably more in agreement with Kennedy (you don't hear me say that every day) or Alito: I get what the majority is saying, and it's not crazy, but the majority's argument seems to render the enumerated powers doctrine a dead letter. I'm not sure where to draw the line or on which side I think civil commitment falls, but I feel like this whole "we need civil commitment because of tort law dur dur dur" is not persuasive. But that's my gut-check talking, I don't have an intellectual argument for where N&P ends and enumeration doctrine begins.

If you want to get into your views on the Commerce Clause, I'm all ears as well, though that is probably a post deserving a separate thread altogether. ;)
I'm probably closest to Thomas. But then, I don't work for the federal government.

While I may not be able to adequately articulate it, I really believe there is a difference between the quarantining of an individual that is infected with a proven contagious disease and a criminal who has been convicted of a crime and has served his/her time in prison being held because of the danger they might pose to society if released. I know you say that it's a mistake to view it in this manner, but the end result is the same. The state is holding the individual because it believes that that individual will commit a harm to society in the future. In the case of the quarantine, the presence of the disease IS the harm.
I believe it was in Hendricks that the Court noted it's not just criminals who could be committed for sexual predation. A man who is legally insane is thereby incapable of committing a crime. No moral approbation attaches to him (in theory). The legally insane person is also no more capable of not molesting a child than the smallpox patient is capable of not shedding viruses.

I agree the end result is often the same. But there's a reason why Catholics are so prevalent in the legal world: the doctrine of double effect is mother's milk to lawyers.

DoctorFinger
05-27-2010, 07:53 AM
Three points, mostly from a medical and not legal perspective.

- As I learned in Psych, there literally isn't a person alive who doesn't - according to the DSM-IV - suffer from at least some form of mental illness. It is by nature comprehensive to the point of near absurdity. Anyone some prosecutor wants to have committed will have a condition covered by the DSM. That's triply true when talking about sexual conditions. So getting a doctor to say someone is a danger is pretty easy. It's also easy to get a doctor to say anyone is not a danger, no matter how much evidence there is otherwise.

- Ox mentioned this tangentially, but there's a difference between mentally ill and non compos mentis. If you watch a lot of Law & Order, you may think that people are found not guilty by reason of mental defect all the time, but it's really a pretty rare situation. And in (just about) every case, the defendant is already under an order of commitment. The legally insane individual who, in theory, could never be found guilty of child molestation would in practice be institutionalized until they were no longer incapable. Someone found not guilty by mental defect would almost certainly spend more time in an institution than they would in jail for the offense.

- Involuntary quarantines for infectious diseases are rare, and always have some sort of defined end point: either the disease is no longer communicable, or the patient dies. The days of putting lepers and poxies in confined colonies are over.

I don't like the idea of civil commitments for sex offenders, at least not the way they're conducted now. But they're wildly popular with the public. So unless the Supreme Court really cracks down on them, they're only going to get more expansive.

TheManEatingCow
05-27-2010, 01:40 PM
Constitutionally? Right now, not a lot. It would be an expansion of the current doctrine, but not an absurd one. More generally, however, not all restraints on government are imposed by courts. I don't know of any legislature which has created a civil commitment law which permits commitment of burglars on the basis of antisocial personality disorder, and I suspect if a legislature tried that the voters would have some choice words for them. I think lawyers and judges tend to suffer from the "holding a hammer" problem: they are able to litigate, and so they assume all issues in society must be solved through litigation.


And here is where my fear comes from. I agree that lawyers and judges like solving issues through litigation, but there are many questions regarding the limits of the governments power that must be addressed by the judiciary. Doctor Finger brings up a point that feeds into my fear of governmental abuse (emphasis mine):


- As I learned in Psych, there literally isn't a person alive who doesn't - according to the DSM-IV - suffer from at least some form of mental illness. It is by nature comprehensive to the point of near absurdity. Anyone some prosecutor wants to have committed will have a condition covered by the DSM. That's triply true when talking about sexual conditions. So getting a doctor to say someone is a danger is pretty easy. It's also easy to get a doctor to say anyone is not a danger, no matter how much evidence there is otherwise.

So yes, in my hypo of the serial burglar, the applied punishment seems overly excessive and the voters may very well be unhappy with a law that allows that today, but you don't get there in one step. First you have a law like the one Comstock was challenging. Then you have an expansive view of what constitutes a sexual crime. Then you go after violent repeat offenders. Until you have arrived, incrementally and perfectly reasonably to criminals who damage/steal property habitually have a mental abnormality and cause damage to society so they must be confined indefinitely.

(This is the part where you get to comically view my recitation of "They came first for the sex offenders")

Its the potential for abuse, in my mind, that leads me to say we just shouldn't allow these kinds of civil commitments. This is partly why I had brought in the notion of people who were found competent enough to stand trial. In that finding, you, the criminal, are found to have understood the charges brought against you, as well as understood the severity of your alleged actions/choices. If the state says you understood your choices, then it has to recognize that the action itself WAS a choice, not the result of a sickness that caused you to commit the action. I have a great deal of trouble accepting the idea of being civilly committed for a sickness that causes you to commit criminal actions after the fact that you had already been found capable of understanding your criminal action and that it was a choice that the state found you culpable enough to incarcerate you criminally for an extended period of time.



I believe it was in Hendricks that the Court noted it's not just criminals who could be committed for sexual predation. A man who is legally insane is thereby incapable of committing a crime. No moral approbation attaches to him (in theory). The legally insane person is also no more capable of not molesting a child than the smallpox patient is capable of not shedding viruses.

Once again, I will go back to the notion of choice. The person who is infected with smallpox can't make a choice to stop spreading smallpox. Mental abnormalities that do not impair your understanding of your choices should not give the government a free pass to detain you forever, regardless of the crime you have committed (assuming you are able to be released after you have been convicted of whatever the crime is and have served your time in prison).

Ultima Thulian
05-27-2010, 11:52 PM
So if I'm understanding correctly, we're on a path, or are already there, to a clearing where pedophilia is considered a mental illness and not a voluntary criminal act? Am I understanding correctly?

If so...interesting. Dunno if I like it or not, but interesting.

ShivaX
05-28-2010, 12:48 AM
So if I'm understanding correctly, we're on a path, or are already there, to a clearing where pedophilia is considered a mental illness and not a voluntary criminal act? Am I understanding correctly?

If so...interesting. Dunno if I like it or not, but interesting.

It might not be a terrible thing. Yeah they wont go to prison with the rest of the prison population, but they also wont ever be able to get back on the streets (since there is no cure).

I'm still kind of in the "thinning the flock" boat, but that doesn't seem to fly too well.

TheManEatingCow
05-28-2010, 06:07 AM
It might not be a terrible thing. Yeah they wont go to prison with the rest of the prison population, but they also wont ever be able to get back on the streets (since there is no cure).

I'm still kind of in the "thinning the flock" boat, but that doesn't seem to fly too well.


Once it has been established that if you diddle a little boy, you are going to be civilly committed and spend the rest of your life confined with no chance of ever being released, why should the pederast leave the child alive? Kill the kid, incinerate the body so no proof of rape can be found, and when you're caught, go to jail for murder (which still does have an end point in a prison sentence).

This has been a rationale for as long as I can remember for why sentences for sexual assaults/rapes have been shorter than that of murder. Whatever you want to say about how awful rape/molestation is, the victim is still left alive, which is more than what you can say for the victim of murder. Once you make the punishment for the crime worse than that of murder, you have a very simple calculus for what you have to do as the perpetrator of said crime.

Ox
05-28-2010, 07:02 AM
So if I'm understanding correctly, we're on a path, or are already there, to a clearing where pedophilia is considered a mental illness and not a voluntary criminal act? Am I understanding correctly?
That's one possible outcome. It's not inevitable. In particular, courts have long distinguished between "mental illness" and "insanity".

Frankly, judges are likely to analogize a pedophile's sexual desires to their own. Most of us feel sexual desire for people we should not have sex with, whether it be married people, people at the office, people other than our spouses, etc. While plenty of people do have dalliances, we usually think we're capable of choosing whether to indulge our sexual desires. Thus, a judge is likely to conclude that a pedophile's mental illness makes him much more likely to abuse a child than most people (and thus might need to be committed) without saying that the pedophile is completely blameless in the abuse (which still leaves open the possibility of criminal sanction).

Once it has been established that if you diddle a little boy, you are going to be civilly committed and spend the rest of your life confined with no chance of ever being released, why should the pederast leave the child alive? Kill the kid, incinerate the body so no proof of rape can be found, and when you're caught, go to jail for murder (which still does have an end point in a prison sentence).
This is one of the chief rationales for the death penalty for felony murder, and why death penalty states almost always include "killing in conjunction with another felony" or "killing a witness" as aggravating factors warranting death. Whether the death penalty actually serves to deter such crime is, of course, a whole nother kettle of fish of a different color.